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And vice versa.

Meaning - is the single person commiting adultery or just the married person?

2007-11-24 13:37:43 · 46 answers · asked by ALL-MAN 5 in Family & Relationships Marriage & Divorce

BTW - this is just a question that was addressed on TV so don't accuse me of being involved in this.

2007-11-24 13:42:38 · update #1

46 answers

She is committing adultery just as much as he is. They are both ignoring his union with his wife and the fidelity that marriage demands. Both she and he are disrespecting his wife.

2007-11-24 13:42:28 · answer #1 · answered by RIck T 4 · 2 2

By definition, a single person CAN NOT commit adultery. Adultery is when you cheat on your spouse... a single person doesn't HAVE a spouse. But the ACT of being with someone who is married is still an adulterous act that she would be participating in.

And regardless, it is not RIGHT.

Unless the married guy is already seperated from his wife and planning on a divorce before they met, I would still have a moral problem with it... she would still be involved in cheating, even if SHE wasn't doing the cheating.

Its like a person who enables an alcoholic to drink. The single female would still be wronging the woman who is being cheated on by her husband. And I'm not even going to get into the other issues involved... well, maybe just a little... like, how is the single woman's self esteem affected by dating a guy with whom she is #2, at best?

So all in all, not adultery per se... but not adviseable either.

2007-11-24 13:56:31 · answer #2 · answered by jarvis508 2 · 2 1

Splitting hairs here?

adultery (n.) Voluntary sexual intercourse between a married person and a partner other than the lawful spouse .

Male, definitely, fits the definition.

Woman, perhaps, or perhaps guilty of fornication.

fornication (n.) Sexual intercourse between partners who are not married to each other.

Fornication is the broad term, which might also include adultery.

If your question is from a religious viewpoint, the Greek Pornia includes both fornication and adultery as a sin.

Some have been confused about the meaning of fornication. Authorities on the language of the N.T. define fornication as "illicit sexual intercourse in general." This definition includes, "prostitution, unchastity ... every kind of unlawful sexual intercourse." Fornication is a broader word than adultery. It sometimes includes adultery (as in 1 Cor. 5: 1), and it is sometimes distinguished from it (as in 1 Cor. 6:9).

Since fornication includes any and all sexual cohabitation outside the bonds of lawful marriage, it includes the sin of premarital sex. By definition fornication includes the sexual intercourse involved in prostitution. In its broadest sense, fornication includes any and all adultery. And as a synonym for adultery, it includes the sin of all who are unscripturally divorced and remarried, or are married to someone who is unscripturally divorced.

2007-11-24 13:47:47 · answer #3 · answered by oklatom 7 · 0 1

Ummm...I'd say that the married person is committing adultery, the single person is aiding & abetting. Neither person is doing the right thing, regardless. Consider - how would YOU feel if you were on the opposite end??

2007-11-24 13:42:16 · answer #4 · answered by greenwoman 2 · 1 0

Sounds like no. Only the married person is an adulterer. The single person is a fornicator:

New York defines an adulterer as a person who "engages in sexual intercourse with another person at a time when he has a living spouse, or the other person has a living spouse" (see reference below)

2007-11-24 14:03:17 · answer #5 · answered by Tim 3 · 0 0

no she is not commiting adultery as she is not married, but she is a s*** a who**, and one of the lowest forms of life, and can be sued in some states for alienation of affection by the wife the last woman who sued her husbands mistress won a judgement of one million dollars against the woman who her husband cheated with ******i dont think anyone is accusing u at least i am not, i think most of the people are reacting strongly on this subject cause it is so devasting to the person who has been cheated on

2007-11-24 13:46:57 · answer #6 · answered by Dale T 4 · 1 1

It can be viewed in a number of ways; however, the way I view it is that it is wrong. The married person is definitely by definition the adulteress, but the single person who is allowing this to take place is a mistress. It is just wrong to embark on a relationship before the other has dissolved.

2007-11-24 13:42:07 · answer #7 · answered by MerMer 2 · 1 0

Yes, if the single female/male is aware that the other person is married, they too are guilty of adultery.

2007-11-24 13:52:40 · answer #8 · answered by Talkstress 6 · 2 1

Adultery is a crime which normally requires (at least) 2 people...therefore both parties are guilty of the crime.

Morally, the married party is held most responsible because he/she is expected to be the responsible one by honoring the marriage commitment.

2007-11-24 13:44:32 · answer #9 · answered by PopsGifts 3 · 1 1

Yes, actually it does if she has knowledge of the relationship! The couple commits adultery as a whole according to the Bible.

2007-11-24 13:44:01 · answer #10 · answered by cwgrrl7 7 · 1 1

Sex outside a marriage is adultery. Doesn't matter if the married man is having sex with a single, gay, married, Asian,Russian, whatever ....its still adultery.

2007-11-24 14:06:45 · answer #11 · answered by Bride2Be 4 · 0 1

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