using geometry we can prove that
cos(a+b)= cos(a)cos(b)-sin(a)sin(b)
when a = b
cos(2a)=cos^2(a)-sin^2(a)=2cos^2(a)-1
what you stated in the question is not exactly correct.
2007-11-24 11:34:15
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answer #1
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answered by norman 7
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It doesn't.
cos (x/2) = √(1/2)(1 + cos x))
The special case of
cos (x/2) = cos x
becomes
2cos^2 x - cos x - 1 = 0
(2cosx + 1)(cosx - 1) = 0
cosx = - 1/2, 1
x = 0°, 240°
or x = 0, 4π/3
2007-11-24 11:38:37
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answer #2
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answered by Helmut 7
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I'm sorry, but I think you got it wrong. It's very obvious that the cos of x/2 is not the same as the cos of x since x/2 is NOT EQUAL to x.
But from trigometry, Cos (x/2) is equal to
+/- sqrt[(1 + cosx)/2]
teddy boy
2007-11-24 11:34:00
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answer #3
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answered by teddy boy 6
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cos (x) = cos( x/2 + x/2) = cos^2(x/2) - sin^2(x/2) = 2 cos^2(x/2) -1
If the formula you wrote is an equation (and it is certainly not an identity), we'll have
2 cos^2(x/2) -1 = cos(x/2),
a quadratic equation, whose unknown is cos(x/2)
cos(x/2) = (1 +/- sqrt(1 + 8)) / 4
then
cos(x/2) = -1/2, or x=+/-4pi/3 + 4kpi
or
cos(x/2) = 1, or x = 0 + 4kpi
2007-11-24 11:30:48
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answer #4
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answered by GusBsAs 6
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This is possible only when x = 0 degree.
2007-11-24 16:31:47
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answer #5
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answered by Pramod Kumar 7
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