English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

So my math teacher mentioned in class the other day in passing that if function f is both even AND odd then it must bue the zero function. He didn't really explain it though and it doesn't make a ton of sense to me. Is this true? If it is, can you provide a short proof that explains why it works for ALL functions f and not just a few examples?

2007-11-24 07:24:28 · 2 answers · asked by George Washington 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

2 answers

Suppose f is both even and odd. Then for all x, f(-x) = f(x) and f(-x) = -f(x), so by transitivity -f(x) = f(x), so 2f(x) = 0, so f(x) = 0. Since this holds for all x, f is the zero function. Q.E.D.

2007-11-24 07:31:40 · answer #1 · answered by Pascal 7 · 0 0

An even function when added to another even function gives an even function. The sum of an even and odd function cannot be categorized as even or odd, eg f(x) = x, is an odd function. f(x) = x squares, is an even function. F(x) = x + x(squared) is neither even not odd. 2) The product of an even function and an odd function is an odd function. The product of two odd functions is an even function. The product of two even functions is an even function.

2016-05-25 05:37:23 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers