is (dy) over (dx) the same as f'(x)?

4 ⤊

if its different ...can u please explain????????? thanks

2007-11-24 06:23:29 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics

Technically no, dy(x)/dx = y '(x) while f '(x) = df(x) /dx. But if you identify y(x) as = to f(x) then yes.

2007-11-24 06:29:56 · answer #1 · answered by ted s 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋

f `(x) = dy/dx
There is no difference between the them.

2007-11-24 14:31:05 · answer #2 · answered by Como 7 · 2⤊ 1⤋

it's the same as y ' (x).

It is the same as f '(x) only if f(x) = y(x)

2007-11-24 14:26:38 · answer #3 · answered by Any day 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋

yup.

2007-11-24 14:26:09 · answer #4 · answered by Jenny 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋