2007-11-22 16:21:08 · 6 answers · asked by I feel better 5 in Sports ➔ Football (American)
It can be done but a don't think it has
2007-11-22 16:38:34 · answer #1 · answered by chrism 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Sir is wrong, you can score a TD without gaining a 1st down. If on the first play of the game, you throw an 80 yard bomb for a TD - that's a TD and you have 0 1st downs.
2007-11-23 00:35:02 · answer #2 · answered by SW1 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not that I'm aware of.....
Trying to be the devil's advocate here.........here are some permutations that could make this possible, although not likely:
1. forfeit
2. assuming teams are not in same league (ie Patriots vs Jr high team)........one team scores every time they snap the ball after change of possession.
3. team that wins turns over the ball every change of possession and outscores team via a highly successful defense (safety, interceptions or fumbles for score, etc)
4. Team scores everytime the ball is kicked to them and losing team has a large time of possession, but can't put it in the end zone as much as the special teams of winning team.
I'm sure there are more.....but this isn't going to happen with teams in the same league.
2007-11-23 10:48:32 · answer #3 · answered by OJ 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Georgia Tech beat Cumberland 222-0 in 1916. without getting a single first down. Cumberland didn't get a first down either.
2007-11-23 08:08:37 · answer #4 · answered by Steve 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Highly unlikely
2007-11-23 00:24:48 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
thats almost impossible, they would have to win the entire game on defense and not get a touchdown on offense
2007-11-23 00:30:47 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋