2007-11-22 13:46:49 · 45 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Royalty
His mum won't let him.
2007-11-22 13:48:50 · answer #1 · answered by ♥tessa♥ 5 · 1⤊ 7⤋
When a King succeeds to the throne, his wife becomes Queen Consort. On his death, she is no longer queen, and their eldest male child becomes king instead. If there are no male children, then the eldest daughter becomes 'Queen Regnant' (i.e. queen in her own right, not through marriage). In the case of Elizabeth II, her father George VI only had daughters, she was the eldest and therefore inherited the throne in the absence of a brother. A Queen Regnant continues in her role until her own death, regardless of how long her husband lives.
However, in the UK there is no such thing as a 'King Consort'. So when a woman becomes Queen Regnant, her husband does not become King - he is instead a Prince (for example Prince Phillip (Elizabeth II's consort) or Prince Albert (Victoria's consort). On the death of a Queen Regnant, her husband is no longer consort. The reason there is no such thing as 'king consort' is because 'king' is considered a more senior title than 'queen' therefore, the consort would potentially overshadow the queen regnant.
Prince Philip is in fact in line to the British throne in his own right (like Elizabeth II he is descended from Queen Vctoria). However he is way down the list of succession at number 475! So he would only become King if the Queen and the 474 people in front of him in the succession all suddenly died!
2007-11-26 03:01:52 · answer #2 · answered by Where's Spot? 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Britain doesn't allow King-consorts. That makes PRINCE Phillip twice as vestigal as the Royal Family.
Ferchrissakes, he's 86 and he's still a PRINCE! The bloke's too old to be one!
Can't he have a more mature-sounding title? Something befitting of his age, like "Highlord Phillip"? Or "Grand Duke Phillip?" How about "Overly-shriveled-for-a-prince Phillip"?
2007-11-26 03:47:58 · answer #3 · answered by Rashid 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Prince Philip was a Prince of Greece and Denmark before he married the then Princess Elizabeth, who was the heir to the British throne. Men do not rise to the rank of their wives when they marry, as women do, so he remained a Prince and was not elevated to "King". He was created a Prince of the United Kingdom, though, upon or shortly after his marriage.
Similarly, although Anthony Armstrong Jones was ennobled when he married Princess Margaret, he did not become a Prince.
2007-11-24 20:02:18 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because if he was King he would have a higher rank then Her Majesty, and it wouldn't be right for him to take the thrown from the Queen. He's the Prince Consort. If a King gets married his wife is the Queen because that rank is slightly lower than King. Also, she wouldn't be Queen, she'd be Queen Consort.
2007-11-25 04:41:49 · answer #5 · answered by reba_rene 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The current British monarch is "Queen Elizabeth II of the United Kingdom" and her husband is Prince Philip, Duke of Edinburgh. Prince Philip could be titled as "King Consort" if Queen Elizabeth II may wished to do so at her discreet, however it is still only a courtesy title. King consort is a title given in some monarchies to the husband of a queen regnant. Nowadays, it is a symbolic title only, the sole constitutional function of the holder being similar to a queen consort, namely to produce an heir to the throne. Spain, Portugal, England and Scotland have all had kings consort; however, since the rank of king normally outranks that of queen, in most monarchies the queen's husband is given the title of prince or prince consort instead.
When Prince Philip first married to then “The Princess Elizabeth”, he was only styled as “His Royal Highness The Duke of Edinburgh.” It was only until 1957 when Philip was finally styled as "His Royal Highness The Prince Philip, Duke of Edinburgh". The Queen has never granted the Prince Philip the title of Prince Consort either. Prince Consort (capitalized) is quite different from the above as it is a formal title. Prince Albert of Saxe-Coburg and Gotha is the only spouse of a British queen ever to have held it. It was awarded to him in 1857 by his wife, Queen Victoria (reigned 1837–1901).
2007-11-22 14:16:23 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 2⤋
because when a queen is married you don't get to be king only if a king marries a queen and he is just married to the queen he has nothing to do with the royal family except his marriage to the queen I'm from England i hope i explained that for you anyway he wont be the king of the queen dies prince Charles will be he is the next in line god save the queen
2007-11-22 13:52:02 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 5⤊ 0⤋
Philip was not the heir to the throne. Elizabeth was heir to her father,King George VI. Philip was just the son-in-law. Philip,although of Royal birth(Danish-Greek),and a third cousin to his wife,
as the consort,or spouse of a ruling Queen Regent,can not have a title that is higher than the monarch's.The title of "king" presumes a monarch,but the monarch is a Queen,now, so Philip,of the Royal House of
Shlesweig-Holstein-Sonderburgh-
Glucksburg,
renamed Mountbatten,wears the title of Prince Consort.
Elizabeth could not proclaim her husband king even if she wanted to;this requires an act of Parliament.And she has never wished to shirk her job,like her unfortunate uncle,David,Duke of Windsor,who abdicated the throne and caused a constitutional crisis and a family drama.
2007-11-23 08:03:48 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
at the beginning, Victoria has been lifeless for 109 years so it might desire to be somewhat complicated for her to be Queen (are you getting your wires crossed with Prince Albert, Victoria's husband?) the ordinary answer is that Prince Phillip is the husband of the reigning monarch. because of the fact the Sovereign is a Queen you won't be able to have her husband being a King (because of the fact the status of the two is unequal, so Phillip has to proceed to be a Prince so he would not impinge on his spouse's authority). opposite to familiar concept, Prince Phillip is in line for the British Throne. even with the undeniable fact that, he does would desire to watch for the 464 people in front of him to die, substitute into Catholic or abdicate till now he would be King.
2016-12-10 03:50:22 · answer #9 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Princess Elizabeth married Phillip of Greece.When she became Queen after the death of George VI,who had no sons.Phillip became Duke of Edinburgh because he is a catholic.Only once has the throne been shared William & mary.William a prodestant While Mary a catholic,this was only to make peace with Scotland,while Dutch William the rightful heir,went on to be William 111 (orange)Battle of the Boyne and all that.Leaving the way for Anne of Scotland,to become Queen of England,and the unifortcation of scotland and england in 1707.
2007-11-22 14:07:59 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 3⤋
in order to be the king you have to be a direct descendant to the throne, and with that there is a strict order for males. So Prince William is in line to be King, and as first born his descendants will be next in line before Prince Harry and his sons. Prince Phillip is not legitimate descendant to the throne.
2007-11-22 13:59:57 · answer #11 · answered by B 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋