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In the van der Waals equation, why is a term added to the observed pressure and why is a term subtracted from the container volume to correct for nonideal gas behavior ?


DETAILS PLEASE !
thaaanks !

2007-11-22 04:41:36 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Chemistry

3 answers

Since the molecules actually occupy some volume, the free volume is a little bit less than the total volume. Or, to put it differently, a molecule takes slightly less time to bounce from one wall to the other because it has some size itself, so the distance it travels is slightly less than the dimension of the container.

The molecules also attract each other. (Imagine that you are running into a wall, but your friends hold you back a bit.) The impact of a molecule on the wall, which is what contributes to the observed pressure, is less forceful than the ideal impact, which is what it would be if there were no interactions.

2007-11-22 04:50:38 · answer #1 · answered by Facts Matter 7 · 1 0

Just to add to what Paul said the volume term is basically to correct for the condensed phase (in an ideal gas the particles occupy zero volume). For example 1 mol of Water gas is 22.4 L, whereas 1 mol of water liquid is about 18 mL. The volume term accounts for this difference. As for the pressure term it is like exactly what paul said...

2007-11-22 05:22:51 · answer #2 · answered by billybob 2 · 0 0

It is quite direct question. Just use the two formula to solve it. to learn Van der Waals equation, i think it at least need A level or higher. so if it will not difficult for you to plug in the value

2016-05-25 00:44:35 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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