Explain why the relativistic Lagrangian is expressed as L = T' - U, where
T' = - m0 c² √(1-(v/c)²)
instead of L = T - U, where T is the relativisitc kinetic energy,
T = (m0 c²) / √(1-(v/c)²) - m0 c²
2007-11-22
04:36:54
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2 answers
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asked by
Scythian1950
7
in
Science & Mathematics
➔ Physics
In particular, what's the "analytic continuation" from Newtonian to Relativistic in this case?
2007-11-22
04:38:02 ·
update #1
Yeah, it's the "why not?" that I like to know about. I'm looking for any answers talking about the "why" and "why not".
2007-11-22
05:51:59 ·
update #2