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I know that the determinant of ((lambda)(I)-(A) has to be zero, but what about det (A)? Does it have to be zero as well?

2007-11-22 03:00:39 · 3 answers · asked by invincibleian 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

3 answers

An n×n matrix will always have n eigenvalues counted with algebraic multiplicity. The eigenvalues are precisely those values of λ that make det (A-λI) = 0. Note that if det (A) = 0, then this is the same as saying det (A-0I) = 0, so det (A) will be zero if and only if 0 is an eigenvalue of the matrix.

2007-11-22 04:52:33 · answer #1 · answered by Pascal 7 · 0 0

a matrix has eigenvalues if it's determinant is non zero

sum of eigenvalues and their products are related to the trace of the matrix and it's determinant

trace of a matrix = sum of all diagonal entries of the matrix


try it and you can see that it is true:

Sum of eigenvalues = trace of the matrix.
Product of eigenvalues = determinant of the matrix

2007-11-22 03:09:01 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

nope... the determinant of a matrix need not be zero for for it to have eigen values...

2007-11-22 03:18:57 · answer #3 · answered by Bharghava 3 · 0 0

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