2007-11-21 16:38:51 · 5 answers · asked by shoreke 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
The democratically elected leader (Mossadeq) of Iran wanted the oil assets to belong to the Iranian people.
The Shah of Iran was content to let the foreign corporations keep the assets and give him some of the profits to fund his luxurious lifestyle.
2007-11-21 17:16:42 · answer #1 · answered by brainstorm 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If the iranian leader in 1953 had his way, Oil production would have favored the citizens of iran profit wise and not the westernized globalist looking to control it through thier alliances with other oil producing nations, we needed to dictate irans decisions by installing the shah, he was a player in the game and would rule with america's interest, whatever that would be at the time, probably to prevent our known enemies from putting a foothold in an oil producing nation.
2007-11-21 17:04:54 · answer #2 · answered by Al 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Well, Oil is the answer, but they claimed he was pro Communist. I seem to remember something about his being declared insane, a trick to get him out. Oddly enough, the Soviets used to declare someone "ill" in order to get them out of the way.
2007-11-21 21:51:09 · answer #3 · answered by william_byrnes2000 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
read your book and find out
2007-11-21 16:46:11 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
One word .....Oil
2007-11-21 19:34:52 · answer #5 · answered by Annabella M 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋