2007-11-21 07:34:00 · 5 answers · asked by D*Star 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
f(x) = (3/2)x
Let y = (3/2)x
g(y) = x
g(y) = (2y/3)
Inverse is g(x) = (2x/3)
2007-11-25 07:02:52 · answer #1 · answered by Como 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
An inverse is y switched with x.
So, x = 3/2 y.
Then you need to solve for y. Multipyling both sides by 2/3 to get y by itself, you get 2/3x = y, or y = 2/3x.
2007-11-21 15:40:47 · answer #2 · answered by Alyssa 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
y=(2/3) x
To get this make change y to x and x to y. So you get x=3/2 y Then just solve for y, 2x=3y then 2/3(x) = y
2007-11-21 15:43:45 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
x=2/3y or really its y=2/3x but then that would never make sense
2007-11-21 15:39:54 · answer #4 · answered by pearls3212 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
replace y with x:
x = 3/2y
isolate y:
2x = 3y
2/3x = y
2007-11-21 15:43:05 · answer #5 · answered by sayamiam 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋