2007-11-21 01:00:35 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Business & Finance ➔ Personal Finance
I would venture that it depends on your father's assigned heirs, such as your mother or yourself. Did he leave a will? If not, it would probably become your mother's property. But, it depends on the inheritance laws in your state. Talk to an attorney.
2007-11-21 01:12:59 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
It depends on where you live.
In some locations, if an heir predeceases you, and you do not change the will, the part of your estate that that heir would have receive is either re-distributed, or simply sucked-up by the state.
*Generally*, however, unless a will specifically indicates alternate wishes, in most places, property that comes to an estate would be then distributed to the inheritors of that estate.
You *may* have to be willing to put up a fight, because if there are other heirs that are ogling the property that was to come to your father, they may try to contest the transfer to you.
2007-11-21 09:53:39 · answer #2 · answered by jcurrieii 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If there is no will on your fathers part property goes into heirship. If your parents were married at the time of his death, it goes to her. If she has the property and then dies without a will it goes into heirship again and goes to you.
HOWEVER, rules could be different in your area, this is from my home area in wv. Also, it is possible that someone else who wants this property will contest the will. You should speak to an atty who deals with executing wills.
2007-11-21 09:09:20 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
was he deceased at the time it was left to him? I don't think that's possible. But if he already possessed it then he can leave it to whom ever he wants to. Nothing is automatic. without a will there could be a fight. As long as everyone agrees then it's usually passed to the wife. But then even if he was deceased, if no one fights about it, your mom would get it anyway. then if she chooses she can give to you
2007-11-21 09:11:40 · answer #4 · answered by cindyokie1 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It may vary from state to state, but I believe that your mother would be the one to inherit if they were still legally married when he died.
2007-11-21 09:10:08 · answer #5 · answered by Mom22girls 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It depends on the laws in the state/province.
Better consult with a lawyer.
2007-11-21 10:02:28 · answer #6 · answered by gonzo 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't think that a person who has passed can be the receptor of an inheritance.
2007-11-21 09:06:29 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋