Hi,
Really there's not much to prove regarding why any number raised to the zero power is 1. This is more or less a known definition in mathematics and we appreciate it for what it's known for. If you wanted to test this out you could pick A = 5 and show the following:
5 ^ 0 = ?
5 ^ 1 = 5
5 ^ 2 = 25
5 ^ 3 = 125
Notice that 5 ^ 0 needs to be less than 5 and we aren't raising it to any power, hence the zero. Then if we aren't raising a number to any power, then that must mean that it's 1! Also, think about A = 1, if that was the case, it wouldn't matter what the exponent would be because it would ALWAYS amount out to being 1.
That is probably where the definition comes from!
I hope that helps you out! Please let me know if you have any other questions!
Sincerely,
Andrew
2007-11-20 13:54:11
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answer #1
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answered by The VC 06 7
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This simple example would say why it is 1
The rule is: x^b / x^c = x^(b-c).
Ex.1: 5^3 / 5^2 = 125 / 25 = 5
5^3 / 5^2 = 5 ^(3-2) = 5^1 = 5
Ex.2: 5^3 / 5^3 = 125 / 125 = 1
5^3 / 5^3 = 5 ^(3-3) = 5^0 =
... and the result must be 1. So 5^0 =1.
The below link gives a detailed description. But the above statements are the summary of it.
2007-11-20 22:07:21
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answer #2
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answered by what 2
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It is not so much a proof as a definition.
For "normal" exponents like A^7 and A^4, it's easy to see that :
A^x / A^y = A^(x-y)
For example: A^7 / A^4 = A^(7-4) = A^3. This is easy to see because 4 of the A's in the denominator cancel out 4 of the A's in the numerator.
If we accept that A^x / A^y = A^(x-y) for any x and y, then it should be true that:
A^z / A^z = A^(z-z) = A^0
But we know that (A^z / A^z) must be 1. So if we want the rule to work for all exponents, we must define that A^0 = 1.
2007-11-20 21:49:02
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answer #3
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answered by RickB 7
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any thing raised to the power 0 is 1.
because A^0 = A^(1-1) = A^1 * A^(-1) = A^1/A^1 = A/A = 1
2007-11-20 21:48:00
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answer #4
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answered by mohanrao d 7
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Aplying the exponencial rules:
A^n / A^n = A^(n-n) = A^0 = 1
Because also,
A^n / A^n = 1 (qty divided by itself is always 1)
Then A^n / A^n = A^0 = 1
2007-11-20 21:45:23
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answer #5
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answered by achain 5
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x^y is defined as
e^(y*log(x))
If y is 0, we have
x^y=e^y
By the definition of the exponential function,
e^y=1+y/1+y^2/2!+y^3/3!+...
Since y is zero,
e^y=1
Thus,
x^y=x^0=1
2007-11-20 22:06:58
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answer #6
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answered by moshi747 3
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A^1 is A times itself 1 time.
A^2 is A times itself 2 times.
so, A^0 is A times itself 0 times which is 0 because you are not multiplying by anything. that's just what I think.
2007-11-20 21:40:00
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answer #7
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answered by monkey_king122 2
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0^0 is also defined as one, by the way.
A^n is defined as 1 times A, n times.
2007-11-20 21:49:01
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answer #8
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answered by Tom 6
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A^(x+y) = (A^x)*(A^y)
Similarly
A^(x-y) = (A^x)/(A^y)
Assuming Aâ 0:
A^0
= A^(x-x)
= (A^x)/(A^x)
= 1
2007-11-20 21:43:06
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answer #9
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answered by gudspeling 7
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