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this is to do with license to trade,if nothing was formally signed can the licensor insist that the licencee must have accepted even if it wasnt signed

2007-11-20 07:17:02 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

3 answers

You need to check the contract law of your state, as there can be subtle differences between states. Generally, one party cannot assume that the other party accepts the contract, it must be in writing.

However, if an offer is made in good faith by the licensee, and the licensor accepts it, the licensee does not need to sign anything. That offer will generally be accepted as the licensee's agreement to the deal. (For example, if you offer to pay Joe $100 for services, you can't claim you never agreed to it just because you never signed the contract)

2007-11-20 07:59:57 · answer #1 · answered by stockholmbooking 2 · 0 0

In UK a verbal contract can be entered into but it is said not to be worth the paper it isn't written on.

A contract is not legally binding until all sides have signed it.
It can be agreed retrospectively

2007-11-20 08:38:23 · answer #2 · answered by Scouse 7 · 0 0

If it was a verbal agreement and there were witnesses to it, then it is a legal transaction in law.

2007-11-20 10:45:16 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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