You can make a great objective argument for this. But you're going to have to do the research for your evidence.
You're going to have to compare piano music to the symphony, and program music to instrumental music. The symphony is considered the epitome of high art in music, culminating with Beethoven's Ninth Symphony; yet it was composed at the beginning of the Romantic Period. For most of the Classic Period, the symphony was solely instrumental music composed in sonata form. Beethoven started to move toward program music with Symphony No. 6, The Pastoral. Most scholars ascribe to the theory, as did Wagner, that the Ninth is the evolution of the instrumental symphony into the programatic symphony. They theorize that the first three movements are Beethoven trying to find the perfect theme. In the 4th movement, he brings back the themes from the those movements, and then throws them out. He introduces the Ode To Joy theme, and all seem great and you think the end of the symphony is near, when it all comes crashing down. But he builds the theme back up and introduces the voices, whereby making the symphony complete.
So, for early Romantic composers, the questions was, where do we go from here? Schubert composed a lot of vocal music, but the symphony was not his focus. Brahms didn't compose his first symphony until he was in his 50s. They had some tough shoes to fill. Wagner, on the other hand, theorized that Beethoven's direction was headed for program music, and that was to be the evolution of Western Art Music; thus, he composed mostly program music.
So, what does all that have to do with your question?
Yes, one can theorize about Beethoven's direction in music, but that's all it is. He died, and all those Romantic composers could only speculate. But if you look at Beethoven's works over the course of his life, very little of his work was programmatic, operatic, even symphonic. His work was largely piano (and he was a pianist, before any other instrument) chamber, concerto, etc. So by examining the oeuvre, the evidence points to Beethoven putting more importance on these forms rather than symphonic, operatic or programmatic music. Where would he have gone with, say, piano music?
Beethoven had already started straying from tradition in 1799 with his first published sonata, Piano Sonata No. 8 in C minor, op. 13, Pathetique. One could argue that it was Chopin who composed in the direction in which Beethoven was actually moving. Chopin's music is mostly instrumental and piano. He also used forms that he designed, eg the nocturnes. This is where you would describe some of Chopin's musical forms as examples.
After Wagner, most composers went in a new direction, and it was more in the style of Chopin than any other Romantic composer. The musical form was much freer. There was a complete backlash against everything Romantic, some particularly in response to Wagner.
Are you getting my point? If you have any other questions, just email me.
2007-11-22 14:53:48
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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I know this was asked five years ago, but everyone is constantly saying how his work is predictable, how the melody is nice but it isn't very technically advanced beyond that, that he didn't compose orchestra pieces because he wasn't very good at it. I very much admire his work. A music piece doesn't have to be difficult or anything to be great. I love that he did mainly piano, it doesn't make him any less great than other composers who tried to do everything because that's probably what he loved the most so why do other instruments if your happy with it? I wouldn't do anything else just because everyone else composed everything. No one here thought to mention how sickly he was. He had health issues and suffered from mental illness, most likely bipolar disorder or schizophrenia. He was 39 when he died, he most likely knew that was going to die young. Chopin extracted much of his influence from poetry and paintings, often using his surroundings to inspire his melodies. I sense that he was very in tune with his emotional side because although other composers have very emotional and grand pieces, they feel more mechanic and forced while chopin's was more free and personal. This is very evident when people who are used to playing from other composers, when they play something of chopin's it feels mechanical, while people who play with more emotion make his work sound as it should be. He felt everything in his environment while composing music and since he was a very sick person ( physically and emotionally) I feel he used that. I myself as a sick individual feel and understand each and every single note and where they come from, what made them, this is especially true with his nocturnes. I think that's what makes him so good compared to others.
2016-05-24 08:16:12
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answer #2
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answered by ? 3
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It came from his Polish romantic soul,which put so much passion and feelings in the interpretation of his works.
such power full that only Slavic pianists can dig into the bottom of his genus mind. You can not learn how to play Chopin,you have to feel it from your heart first.
With all do respect to the others. J.K.
2007-11-20 16:52:48
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answer #3
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answered by JANUSZ K 1
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May I interject a feeble attempt at humor here? I think Chopin had an aversion to the white keys, probably due to traumatic influences in childhood.
2007-11-21 06:23:53
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answer #4
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answered by greydoc6 7
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He's really not... not in any sense at all. His epitome was clear, accessible lyric lines for the virtuoso pianist, and refined yet raw emotion in his music, and there's no question that he was a genius in any of these respects. He is simply bested in each category by another composer;
Franz Liszt is the undisputed king of pianistic virtuosity;
Sergei Rachmaninoff, Sergei Prokofiev and Edvard Grieg all wrote more extensively for piano, with an equal talent for aesthetic lyric form (ixnay on prokofiev for this one), plus skills in counterpoint (not so much for Grieg perhaps) and orchestral writing.
Sorry I couldn't help prove your point, but Chopin just wasn't quite the best at anything.
2007-11-20 11:39:19
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answer #5
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answered by Pianist d'Aurellius 4
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If your focus is on his works for piano and the best romantic composer of piano works, you've got a good shot. His extensive works of nocturnes, preludes, polonaises, etudes, etc show a wide variety of emotion.
The weakness in your argument that you'll have to counter is his lack of works for orchestra. I believe he wrote 2 piano concerti, but no symphonies...compared to Brahms, or Mendelssohn, Schubert or even Schumann in that regard will make him look like small potatoes!
Good luck!
2007-11-20 04:40:16
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answer #6
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answered by grasshoppercookie 3
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chopin was famous with george sands as lovers and his piano sonatas is beyond any others during the romantic period
2007-11-20 07:19:11
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answer #7
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answered by FriendlyLionLeo 2
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Your question is highly subjective, so I don't think you prove that he is the best composer of the period. As grasshopper rightly points out, his oeuvre is almost exclusively for the piano. He composed two concerti and some works for piano and cello, but no major ensemble works. As such he can be considered a miniaturist.
So really you can only make comparisons between his work and similar work by other romantic composers. For example, Brahms wrote a great deal of pieces for solo piano, particularly late in his life. His Opus 116 -119 works are highly romantic, but how so you compare such pieces to say; Chopins Ballades or Scherzos. What makes his work superior?You really draw the conclusion that the music is superior from the standpoint that his is so memorable, melodic and unique. His melodies are distinct and extremely beautiful. Better than anyone else though? Difficult to make such a case.
It is unique though, better - who knows?
2007-11-20 05:57:04
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answer #8
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answered by Malcolm D 7
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