Where in the US Constitution does it say that women are prohibited from voting? I can't find it anywhere.
2007-11-19 13:17:26 · 6 answers · asked by Kyle R 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Elections
It's not in there, it was just a tradition, written in to laws later.
2007-11-19 13:28:49 · answer #1 · answered by MP US Army 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Women voted in New England in the 1750's but, only in Town Hall meetings. It does not specifically say that women could not vote in the Constitution, it went without saying that they couldn't. The 19th Amendment to the Constitution was ratified in 1920 & women in all states could vote. Women in Wyoming were voting in national elections in the 1870's.
2007-11-19 13:35:09 · answer #2 · answered by geegee 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They were excluded by law until the 14th Amendment, which by referencing "males" was thought to exclude females.
2. Representatives shall be apportioned among the several States according to their respective numbers, counting the whole number of persons in each State, excluding Indians not taxed. But when the right to vote at any election for the choice of electors for President and Vice-President of the United States, Representatives in Congress, the Executive and Judicial officers of a State, or the members of the Legislature thereof, is denied to any of the male inhabitants of such State, being twenty-one years of age, and citizens of the United States, or in any way abridged, except for participation in rebellion, or other crime, the basis of representation therein shall be reduced in the proportion which the number of such male citizens shall bear to the whole number of male citizens twenty-one years of age in such State.
The 19th Amendment (Women's Sufferage) put an end to that interpretation.
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2007-11-19 13:28:09 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It didn't have to, just like it never said that slaves couldn't vote. Since women were, largely, treated as chattel way back when, the status quo was that they had no voice in government. Since that was the universal norm, it went without having to be specified.
That's why when they were allowed to vote, they had to write an amendment to specify that it was so.
2007-11-19 13:26:12 · answer #4 · answered by ? 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Only if a person is convicted of a felony.
2007-11-19 13:21:26 · answer #5 · answered by John K 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i don't think it is written anywhere
2007-11-19 13:22:00 · answer #6 · answered by Mary Jo W 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋