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This one has me stumped...if you could tell me how you got to the answer so I understand the proof that would be great!

Thanks for your help :)

2007-11-19 07:39:30 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

3 answers

e^(iθ) = cos θ + i sin θ
e^(-iθ) = cos (-θ) + i sin (-θ) = cos θ - i sin θ

Now, add:

e^(iθ) + e^(-iθ) = 2 cos θ.

Divide by 2:

[e^(iθ) + e^(-iθ)] / 2 = cos θ.

To get sin θ, multiply the second equation by -1, then do the same thing.

2007-11-19 07:47:04 · answer #1 · answered by ♣ K-Dub ♣ 6 · 2 0

E Itheta

2017-02-20 14:46:06 · answer #2 · answered by bigelow 4 · 0 0

1. e^(i theta) = cos(theta) + i sin(theta)
2. e^-(i theta) = cos(-theta) + i sin(-theta)

Now, equation number 2 can be put as:
e^-(i theta) = cos(theta) - i sin(theta)

Adding (1) and (2) we get:

e^(i theta) + e^-i(theta) = 2cos(theta) // divide by 2

cos*theta) = [e^(i theta) + e^-i(theta) ] / 2

2007-11-19 07:50:23 · answer #3 · answered by Amit Y 5 · 1 0

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2d = (3e +1)(e-1) 2d=3e^2-2e-1 2d +1 = 3e^2 - 2e

2016-04-01 15:57:16 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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