Directives?

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If, the EU pass a directive, for example, one month paternity leave and the uk already has 2 weeks paternity leave, do they still have to comply to this directive

2007-11-18 20:59:42 · 2 answers · asked by bea_utie 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics

2 answers

The UK law will prevail over the EU law because the latter is a specific law in UK.

2007-11-18 22:08:20 · answer #1 · answered by FRAGINAL, JTM 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋

Sorry.. Not familiar with the UK Law..

2007-11-19 00:03:12 · answer #2 · answered by Hari 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋