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Explain why it is sometimes argued that the Mexican War was a major cause of the Civil War. Details please

2007-11-18 17:37:58 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities History

4 answers

Good question your teacher has posed.
The U.S. victory in the Mexican War meant that territory was added which would eventually make up six new states in the southwestern USA. This became a political football. The South wanted to keep slavery. If these new states came into the union as free states, their senators and representatives would tip the balance of votes in the U.S. Congress, and slavery could be outlawed for the entire nation.
The South had four million slaves - representing a cash value of between two and four billion dollars. The Southern planters who owned this "property" would prefer to start a war than give up their investment in human livestock. (Sorry Southerners - of which I am one - but that's the sad truth.)

Since only a minority of Southerner owned slaves, why would the rest of the South go to war? Because they did not want 4 million FREED African Americans living in their midst - outnumbering the whites in many areas - and many of them
understandably surly from being oppressed for so long.

2007-11-18 19:08:33 · answer #1 · answered by Spreedog 7 · 0 0

What does the Mexican War which occurred in 1846 have to do with the Civil War which started in 1861? After America defeated the Mexicans, we not only acquired the Texas territory, but also the California and New Mexico territories (Nevada, Utah, Arizona, New Mexico, and parts of Oklahoma, Colorado, and Wyoming). Now the question of whether or not these territories would allow slavery came to the surface. Northerners were basically against fighting the War for the cause of slavery expansion (simply because it was not a cause that directly involved them), and thus they were against any results of the War that would indicate such a cause. However, since most of these new territories were south of the Missouri Compromise line, Southerners argued they had the right to expand slavery to those new territories.

2007-11-18 19:20:25 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Because of the debate about whether new states added to the union could be free or slave states. Previous legislation ruled that no territory north of Missouri could be a slave state (The Missouri compromise) to keep slavery contained in the south. However people argued that this took away the sovereignty of the states, they couldn't even decide on their own to endorse or ban slavery, and if you take away the sovereignty of the states, what reason is there of having states? And if there are no states, how can there be a union?

2007-11-18 20:34:36 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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2016-10-01 04:16:59 · answer #4 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

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