Put a dot at (0,0), because the y-intercept is 0. Then put a dot at (1, 852), because the slope is 852. Obviously, you'll need to number the y-axis by hundreds, not 1s. Connect the 2 dots with a straight line.
2007-11-18 12:41:17
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answer #1
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answered by jenh42002 7
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make an x and y chart, if u dont know u have to put -1, 0 and 1 under the x part and then u plug in each one in order to solve for y. soo, first y=852(-1)= first plot (-1, -852) y=852(0)= second plot (0,0) y=852(1) third plot (1,852)...and connect the dots which is a line and ur done!!....-1 0 1 are standard for these unless there'sa fraction then u would use the denominator exp.y= 1/3x+6 u would use -3 0 3 as the x plug-ins...e-mail if any further help needed
2007-11-18 20:51:13
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answer #2
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answered by Ana E 1
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it is simply the same formula as y=mx+b where 852/1 is the slope and there is no b, so it is simply 0 so on a graph, you go up 852 and across 1
2007-11-18 20:42:02
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answer #3
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answered by Idealatheist 2
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