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2007-11-18 12:38:14 · 3 answers · asked by Fernando B 2 in Education & Reference Homework Help

3 answers

Put a dot at (0,0), because the y-intercept is 0. Then put a dot at (1, 852), because the slope is 852. Obviously, you'll need to number the y-axis by hundreds, not 1s. Connect the 2 dots with a straight line.

2007-11-18 12:41:17 · answer #1 · answered by jenh42002 7 · 0 0

make an x and y chart, if u dont know u have to put -1, 0 and 1 under the x part and then u plug in each one in order to solve for y. soo, first y=852(-1)= first plot (-1, -852) y=852(0)= second plot (0,0) y=852(1) third plot (1,852)...and connect the dots which is a line and ur done!!....-1 0 1 are standard for these unless there'sa fraction then u would use the denominator exp.y= 1/3x+6 u would use -3 0 3 as the x plug-ins...e-mail if any further help needed

2007-11-18 20:51:13 · answer #2 · answered by Ana E 1 · 0 0

it is simply the same formula as y=mx+b where 852/1 is the slope and there is no b, so it is simply 0 so on a graph, you go up 852 and across 1

2007-11-18 20:42:02 · answer #3 · answered by Idealatheist 2 · 0 0

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