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Was it because Germany was sinking supply ships already?

2007-11-18 11:13:54 · 14 answers · asked by Chica101 2 in Arts & Humanities History

14 answers

~The US had been sending troops (unofficially - like the Flying Tigers), supplies and other aid to China for use against against Japan in the Second Sino-Japanese war (which was re-named the Pacific theater of WWII after Pearl) for years. US (and other) trade embargoes against Japan were designed to insure that Japan could not become a significant industrial power in the East. Japan has never had the resources she needed on the home islands and the embargoes and trade restrictions were intended to prevent her from having access to them on the world market. Military restrictions forced on Japan were intended to keep her subservient to the West as a modern military power. The US had bases on Guam, Wake, Midway, Clark Field and Subic Bay in addition to Pearl and these bases were a constant threat to Japanese security. When Clark and Subic were beefed up and 15,000 marines were stationed in the Philippines in November, 1941, war was inevitable.

The Japanese general staff knew war with the US was coming. They knew they couldn't win a prolonged war against the US. They thought (more accurately, they hoped) a sudden, complete and comprehensive victory resulting in the destruction of the US Pacific fleet would lead to a prompt treaty with the US that would reduce or eliminate the threat of the US Pacific bases and produce realistic, viable and fair trade agreements. They knew their chances were better by launching a first strike offensive campaign rather than to wait for the US to declare war, forcing Japan to fight a defensive war. The strategy may have worked if the carriers had been in port and had Yamamoto gone after Midway and Subic Bay on his way home. They still had a chance to succeed with their intended strategy, the goal of which was a quick treaty with the US, not a prolonged war, but Halsey caught his rash and Nimitz got to put real admirals, Fletcher and Spruance, in charge at Midway.

Pearl was the first official battle, but the US had chosen sides long before and had acted accordingly. Official US involvement in the Pacific war as a named combatant was a matter of 'when', not 'if'. Pearl was simply a reaction to Washington's falsely self-proclaimed neutrality which fooled no one to begin with, other than those US citizens who so enjoyed burying their heads in the sand while enveloped in the bliss of ignorance.

As to the war in Europe, the German declaration of war against the US on December 11, 1941, is the official start of formal US involvement. However, the US had been actively involved in the European war long before that.

The Neutrality Acts were amended twice, first to make it possible for the UK to purchase war materials from the US for use against Germany and then again, with the Cash and Carry amendments, to make it easier for the British to do so. The Brits were still losing, so the Neutrality Acts were supplemented by the Bases for Boats program then replaced by Lend Lease in March, 1941. After the Soviets repelled Barbarossa, Lend Lease was expanded to include them. The USSR didn't get much (only about 20% of the total package) and got very little in the way of weapons, which was fine because Soviet weapons were superior to anything in the American arsenal at the time, but the consumer and manufacturing goods, and notably the trucks, the Soviets got enabled them to concentrate on the arms production that eventually defeated the Wehrmacht.

In his Fireside Chat of September 11, 1941, FDR all but declared war on Germany when he announced (bragged) that the US would sink all German warships on sight the moment they were first observed in waters the US unilaterally termed it's 'defensive zone'. Not coincidentally, that defensive zone extended from the east coast, past Newfoundland, Greenland and Iceland and almost to the British and Irish ports to which the 'neutral' US was shipping war supplies to one combatant specifically for use against the other. German U-Boats, engaged in a declared war, had made it clear that they would sink vessels laden with arms and munitions destined for her enemies. Common sense dictated that such was going to occur. Only a liar, a hypocrite or a fool would paint a target on his back, parade around in the middle of a rifle range and then complain about getting shot at. FDR was NOT a fool. He wanted to help the British in the war in the worst way and he made no bones about publishing that fact. His policy of provocation against Germany and Japan ultimately got him his wish. On the other hand, the US wanted to see the British Empire dismantled, and the delay in full-scale US involvement in the war granted that wish. One can have one's cake and eat it too if one is devious enough and patient enough.

The US was NOT a neutral nation in the 30's and early 40's and increasing became more blatant in its aid and assistance to the Allies. Japan, then Germany, did the logical, sensible, natural and inevitable thing and finally brought the US into the war in name, US actions already having involved Uncle Sam in both theaters in practice long before. US histories try to paint the US as an innocent and a neutral. Nothing could be further from the truth if you spend the time to look behind the myth of the party line.

2007-11-21 03:28:47 · answer #1 · answered by Oscar Himpflewitz 7 · 2 0

The leaders of the government understood that the USA wouldn't be able to maintain neutrality during WW2. Even before the oil embargo the US and Japan had been eyeing each other for years as potential enemies. Japan understood that with their expansion they would sooner or later have to deal with the US, and the main threat to Japan was the US Navy.

As for Germany our government, and right so, understood that Hitler wasn't someone the US wanted to ally with. They also understood that until such time as the US could enter war, they had to supply Britain with supplies or else Britain could've fallen as well.

When Pearl Harbor happened Japanese officials expected Germany NOT to declare war on the USA thereby turning America's focus away, not towards, Europe. But Hitler made his second stupid mistake of 1941 by declaring war on the USA (his first declaring war on Russia).

2007-11-19 03:07:10 · answer #2 · answered by rz1971 6 · 0 0

America wanted to stay neutral and resisted getting involved in the war in Europe. America was supporting Great Britain and France in their war against Germany, but it was Japan that forced America into war. Japan was in the process of controlling all of Asia and the Pacific and the American Fleet was in their way. Japan attacked at Pearl Harbor in an attempt at crippling the American Fleet. When Americans saw their greatest warships on fire and sinking... the gloves came off. The headline for virtually every newspaper in the Country read "War!".

2007-11-18 11:41:20 · answer #3 · answered by grouch 4 · 1 0

Chica101,
Germany declared war on us following our declaratation of war on Japan. Germany was sinking supply ships because of the Lend Lease program we had for the English and the Russians.

We were forced to enter because of Japan, then because of the Nazi regime in Germany. The average German citizen was NOT to blame for the action of those at the head of state of that country at the time. Nor were the average Japanese citizens.

Best to you!

Gerry :)

Edit Update: Chica101 - you should take a long look at the answer below by Oscar. His response is very detailed but forthcoming for your education in the question you pose. I do not know how much detail you were seeking - or - how interested you are in the topic; however, Oscar again takes the cake.

The only thing I would add to Oscar's answer below is that although the US had made the Lend Lease program and thereby set in motion the sides we "chose", public opinion at the time was very strong in that the US should remain "neutral" and thereby "out" of the war in Europe. Even after the attack on Pearl Harbor when President Roosevelt went before the Congress in which he gave his famous speech following the attack he ends it by stating:

"I ask that the Congress declare that since the unprovoked and dastardly attack by Japan on Sunday, December 7th, 1941, a state of war has existed between the United States and the Japanese Empire."

As you can see above within the context President Roosevelt was cognizant of the public opinion up to this point in time with the careful words he chose.

You really should give Oscar the 10 points.

2007-11-18 11:29:43 · answer #4 · answered by Gerry 7 · 2 1

The US entered for several reasons. Truth is we were already involved in the war. We were conducting antisubmarine patrols and attacking subs, we cut off war supplies from our country to Japan, we sent military aid to the allies and some of our citizens were already fighting under the allies flag.

We were increasing the size of our military through the draft


All of this was happening Before Pearl Harbor.

We knew we were going, it was just a matter of time.

2007-11-18 14:33:31 · answer #5 · answered by joseph b 6 · 0 0

FDR certainly wanted to get into the war on Britain's side and was doing everything he could short of going to congress and asking them to declare war (oh, the good old days, when Congress had to actually say "we are at war") to help the English.

The Japanese attack on Pearl Harbor Naval Base was, actually, a shock to the American government and military because Japan was able to project its force so much farther than the US thought it capable of. I believe, from all I have read, that the US government thought that Japan would attack a US base or asset somewhere, but just couldn't believe they could reach Hawaii with such force.

The Japanese, I suspect, felt that only by striking a crushing blow to the US Navy could they have any chance of forcing the US to negotiate staying out of the Pacific. A strike against, say, only the assets we had in the Phillipines would bring the US into the war with its Navy intact. They had to hope their strike would be so devastating that the US would sue for peace, and would agree to take our troops and other military assets out of the Pacific.

So, the answer is, "Yes"

2007-11-18 11:24:53 · answer #6 · answered by paul s 5 · 2 0

Yes, I believe they were already involved in the war before Pearl Harbor happened.

2016-05-24 02:48:07 · answer #7 · answered by alida 3 · 0 0

Up until that point America had been sending aid to England and some troops but we were not officially in the war until Pearl Harbor....

2007-11-18 11:23:49 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

Yes. Pearl Harbor was the clincher.

2007-11-18 11:16:41 · answer #9 · answered by janniel 6 · 2 0

Yes. America was trading with both sides until Pearl Habor

2007-11-18 18:05:20 · answer #10 · answered by brainstorm 7 · 0 0

I think it was because of Pearl Harbour but I think Americans say it's to save parts of Europe and Britain. Hawaii was not America's until after world war 2 so what was Pearl Harbour doing in Japanese territory anyway?

2007-11-18 11:18:46 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 1 2

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