2007-11-17 17:13:09 · 15 answers · asked by Sadie C 4 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
damn you just a hoe hustler
2007-11-17 17:16:19 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
None.
It doesn't work that way.
When you marry (in most states), you establish community property which you both contribute to. In the event of a divorce, you are (all other things being equal) entitled to half of that.
You are entitled to nothing that he came in with (and he isn't entitled to anything you came in with).
The perception that wives are entitled to husband's money comes from the stereotype of men bringing home income while women care for the house. Since the woman isn't bringing in money but she gets money at the time of a divorce, it is perceived that she is getting it from her husband.
Society must consider child care and the care of the house of value, though it is clearly difficult to price it, so its value is assumed to be equal that of what the other spouse is bringing in. Sometimes that fair, sometimes that ridiculous.
If one spouse is bringing in $3 million a year and some small portion of that is going to a maid service and pampering the other one, its hard to see why that other one can be considered to have contributed equally to the community property.
However, generally, that is considered true.
Obviously the situation gets more complicated when kids are involved, but the custodial parent isn't theoretically receiving money for his or herself but only for the care and welfare of the children.
2007-11-18 01:15:51 · answer #2 · answered by Elana 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
In Virginia, a spouse is only entitled to 1/3. If a spouse leaves less than 1/3, they can contest it.
2007-11-18 02:35:32 · answer #3 · answered by .. 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Actually, you are entitled only to 50% of the TOTAL household income. This means that if you both work & you make MORE than he does, that you owe HIM some money. BOTH of your incomes are taken into account.
2007-11-18 01:16:16 · answer #4 · answered by cyanne2ak 7 · 4⤊ 0⤋
Not sure what you mean. It depends on the state where you live. In some states that are community property states; it is half but then it goes both ways. Half of what you have is his.
In other states it may depend on how much each of you has and how long you have been together.
2007-11-18 01:19:09 · answer #5 · answered by Just my opinion 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
depends on your state if your in the usa
in most states it is 50% but in some you are not entitled to any
2007-11-18 01:15:47 · answer #6 · answered by little78lucky 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
By Law 50%, the other 50% by obligation.....(sex, cooking, cleaning...etc) total 100%
2007-11-18 01:28:39 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
It depends on where you live. If he worked, you should get half of everything plus alimony. If you both worked, everything is split down the middle. If you made the money, then he get palimony.
2007-11-18 01:16:08 · answer #8 · answered by vixxen 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Sounds like problems or gold-diggers on either side (not neccesarly u!). 50% as far as I know, but if it is not in a shared account I don't think it counts as much.
2007-11-18 01:16:29 · answer #9 · answered by J A 1 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
50% of everything not just money
2007-11-18 01:20:44 · answer #10 · answered by Lolly518 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
funny thing about that..........I am only entitled to my wifes A $$ about 10% of the time......kinda unfair if you ask me
2007-11-18 01:20:18 · answer #11 · answered by Ancient Warrior DogueDe Bordeaux 5 · 1⤊ 2⤋