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Assume that we know sigma (1/r!)from r=0 to infinity converges to e. Then how would we show that e - sigma(1/r!)from r=0 to n < 1/(n(n!))?

From this, can we deduce that e is irrational?

2007-11-17 05:29:48 · 2 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

2 answers

Ther's an excellent proof at this site

http://mathforum.org/isaac/problems/eproof.html

2007-11-17 05:51:33 · answer #1 · answered by Joe L 5 · 0 0

The first part is just the very definition of a limit!!

2007-11-18 00:56:27 · answer #2 · answered by Curt Monash 7 · 0 0

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