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There are no contridictions in the Bible on the main issue. Touche! Out the door. By-by with tht arguement. Sorry guys. I was waiting for the opening. Ha!

2007-11-17 03:59:16 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

You are right. I am a smart ***.

2007-11-17 04:00:02 · update #1

7 answers

It was only by the authority of the Catholic Church, which collected the various books of Scripture in the fourth century, that we have a Christian Bible at all. And it is only because of the Church that the Bible survived and was taught for the many centuries before the printing press made it widely available.


John Wycliff had produced a translation of the Bible, that was corrupt and full of heresy. It was not an accurate rendering of sacred Scripture.

Both the Church and the secular authorities condemned it and did their best to prevent it from being used to teach false doctrine and morals. Because of the scandal it caused, the Synod of Oxford passed a law in 1408 that prevented any unauthorized translation of the Bible into English and also forbade the reading of such unauthorized translations.

Tyndale was an English priest of no great fame who desperately desired to make his own English translation of the Bible. The Church denied him for several reasons.

First, it saw no real need for a new English translation of the Scriptures at this time. In fact, booksellers were having a hard time selling the print editions of the Bible that they already had. Sumptuary laws had to be enacted to force people into buying them.

Second, we must remember that this was a time of great strife and confusion for the Church in Europe. The Reformation had turned the continent into a very volatile place. So far, England had managed to remain relatively unscathed, and the Church wanted to keep it that way. It was thought that adding a new English translation at this time would only add confusion and distraction where focus was needed.

Lastly, if the Church had decided to provide a new English translation of Scripture, Tyndale would not have been the man chosen to do it. He was known as only a mediocre scholar and had gained a reputation as a priest of unorthodox opinions and a violent temper. He was infamous for insulting the clergy, from the pope down to the friars and monks, and had a genuine contempt for Church authority. In fact, he was first tried for heresy in 1522, three years before his translation of the New Testament was printed. His own bishop in London would not support him in this cause.

Finding no support for his translation from his bishop, he left England and came to Worms, where he fell under the influence of Martin Luther. There in 1525 he produced a translation of the New Testament that was swarming with textual corruption. He willfully mistranslated entire passages of Sacred Scripture in order to condemn orthodox Catholic doctrine and support the new Lutheran ideas. The Bishop of London claimed that he could count over 2,000 errors in the volume (and this was just the New Testament).

And we must remember that this was not merely a translation of Scripture. His text included a prologue and notes that were so full of contempt for the Catholic Church and the clergy that no one could mistake his obvious agenda and prejudice. Did the Catholic Church condemn this version of the Bible? Of course it did.

The secular authorities condemned it as well. Anglicans are among the many today who laud Tyndale as the "father of the English Bible." But it was their own founder, King Henry VIII, who in 1531 declared that "the translation of the Scripture corrupted by William Tyndale should be utterly expelled, rejected, and put away out of the hands of the people."

So troublesome did Tyndale’s Bible prove to be that in 1543—after his break with Rome—Henry again decreed that "all manner of books of the Old and New Testament in English, being of the crafty, false, and untrue translation of Tyndale . . . shall be clearly and utterly abolished, extinguished, and forbidden to be kept or used in this realm."

Ultimately, it was the secular authorities that proved to be the end for Tyndale. He was arrested and tried (and sentenced to die) in the court of the Holy Roman Emperor in 1536. His translation of the Bible was heretical because it contained heretical ideas—not because the act of translation was heretical in and of itself. In fact, the Catholic Church would produce a translation of the Bible into English a few years later (The Douay-Reims version, whose New Testament was released in 1582 and whose Old Testament was released in 1609).

When discussing the history of Biblical translations, it is very common for people to toss around names like Tyndale and Wycliff. But the full story is seldom given. This present case of a gender-inclusive edition of the Bible is a wonderful opportunity for Fundamentalists to reflect and realize that the reason they don’t approve of this new translation is the same reason that the Catholic Church did not approve of Tyndale’s or Wycliff’s. These are corrupt translations, made with an agenda, and not accurate renderings of sacred Scripture.

And here at least Fundamentalists and Catholics are in ready agreement: Don’t mess with the Word of God.

2007-11-19 07:03:28 · answer #1 · answered by Isabella 6 · 0 0

Give me a few minutes....theres a whole lis somewhere on here.......try searching R&S...

1st contradiction
Jesus baptised like billy-o
John 3:22
After these things came Jesus and his disciples into the land of Judaea; and there he tarried with them, and baptized.
Or not...
John 4:2
Though Jesus himself baptized not, but his disciples.

2nd contradictory set
God isn't angry long
Psalm 30:5
For his anger endureth but a moment.
Jeremiah 3:12
I am merciful, saith the Lord, and I will not keep anger for ever.
Micah 7:18
He retaineth not his anger forever, because he delighteth in mercy.

Oh, wait, he is.....
Numbers 32:13
And the Lord's anger was kindled against Israel, and he made them wander in the wilderness for forty years.
Jeremiah 17:4
Ye have kindled a fire in mine anger, which shall burn for ever.
Malachi 1:4
The people against whom the LORD hath indignation for ever.
Matthew 25:41
Depart from me, he cursed, into everlasting fire, prepared for the devil and his angels.
Matthew 25:46
And these shall go away into everlasting punishment.

Just a few there...
And it doesn't say theres no God, just shows that God and the Bible contradict themselves on numerous occasions...

2007-11-17 12:03:53 · answer #2 · answered by Rafael 4 · 1 0

No where does it say there is no god, because it perpetuates the idea of a god.
As far as "no contradictions," in the Bible on the main issue, Why does it state, thou shall have no other gods before me, if "God" itself didn't believe in other gods?

2007-11-17 20:09:34 · answer #3 · answered by Nepetarias 6 · 0 0

the Bible of the Christian faith does not say there isnt a God, in fact it offers up their version of their God, and it offers it from various voices, the writers, and in various situations
more important , to me, then any contradictions in that Bible, is the contradictions i see in those who say they are followers, and the actual actions they do
no matter what you believe, no matter which holy book you follow, or spiritual way, its very important to "walk the walk of the talk you talk"

2007-11-17 12:11:14 · answer #4 · answered by dlin333 7 · 0 0

You can go to http://www.skepticsannotatedbible.com/ to find the contradiction you want. Who the hell are you arguing with. "Touche! Out the door. By-by with that argument. Sorry guys..."

2007-11-17 12:09:00 · answer #5 · answered by jiahua448 4 · 0 0

hmmm 2000 years of believers, and no sign of him yet...time to put away your security blanket and become an adult. There is no Santa Claus, Easter Bunny, or Tooth Fairy....and there is no GOD!

2007-11-17 12:10:11 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

the sentence starts off
There is no god, other than Jehovah.
But don't ask me where abouts in the bible it is,
coz i haven't a clue.

2007-11-17 12:14:28 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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