ok what i'm looking for is...
two people have to pick 2 numbers from 1 thru 150.
say 2 of the 150 is blue and the other 148 are white.
what are the odds that the two people will pick the 2 blue on their first try? or i just need the equation and i will figure it out...thanks!
2007-11-16 12:54:18 · 4 answers · asked by na cho baby 3 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Hi,
1 chance in 11,175
There are 150 different choices for first pick and 149 choices for the second pick. This multiplies to 150 x 149 = 22,350. But suppose the winners were #48 and #104. There are 2 orders they could have be chosen, #48 and then #104 or #104 and then #48. So 2 of the 22,350 picks would have won for a 1 in 11,175 chance of winning.
Hersheys was pretty safe on their odds of giving away $100,000,000 on these exact odds tonight!
I hope that helps!! :-)
2007-11-16 13:05:52 · answer #1 · answered by Pi R Squared 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Okee dokke, first thing you need to do is make a fraction:
The fraction of the numbers that are blue is 2/150. This can be reduced to 1/75.
Since you reduced the numbers by two, you must also reduce the number of people picking by 2. So now we have this:
one person has to pick one number from 1-75.
1 of the 75 are blue and the other 74 are white.
So the odds are either 1/75 or 2/150.
I hope I understood this correctly. For some reason I think I'm not quite understanding the problem, but I still hope this helps!
2007-11-16 21:09:39 · answer #2 · answered by J D 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The chance of picking one of the two numbers on the first try is :
2/150.
There are now 149 numbers left, and only one of them is a "winner", so the chance of picking the second (remaining) winning number is:
1/149.
For these two events to occur in sequence (or simultaneously, it doesn't matter which), the chances are:
2/150 X 1/149 = 2/22350 = 1 in 11,175.
Hope this helps you understand the process.
2007-11-16 21:10:55 · answer #3 · answered by Joe L 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If they are independent and allowed to guess the same number, the odds are 1/75 for the first person and 1/75 for the second person, so the odds are 1/75 * 1/75 = 1/5625.
If they are not allowed to pick the same number, the odds are still 1/75 for the first person, but only 1/149 for the second.
1/75 * 1/149 = 11.175
2007-11-16 21:20:33 · answer #4 · answered by Steve A 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋