Back in 1920's, 1930's and 1700's how come women didn't get the right to vote for president?

Question

It just isn't right..

Answer 1

People back then didn't see it that way, DJ. Gender roles were more defined and it was the responsibility of the man to take care of the issues outside the home. The home was the woman's domain. Back then taking care of a house and children without vacuum cleaners and microwave ovens and stuff was a back breaking full time job. So the men counted on the women to take care of the house and family and the women counted on the men to care of outside concerns that might effect the home and family. It worked for them. Today things are different.

Answer 2

Um...wow. In the US, the 19th Amendment was passed in 1920. So women had the right to vote in the 1920s and 1930s. There were 3 presidential elections in the 1700s which women could not vote in.

Of course, there are plenty of groups of women (African-American women, for example) who have been denied voting even though they have the legal right to it, just like groups of men, throughout history.

Answer 3

In the first place, women in the U. S. got the right to vote in 1920, when the 19th Amendment wsas passed. There had been a women's rights movement in the country since before the Civil War. However, for whatever reason, human affairs had been largely male-dominated at least since the beginning of written history. Why?? Men are generally bigger and stronger than women, and women have and nurse children. By the time democracy was established anywhere, male domination was already long in place. It took a long time for men to accept that women had a moral right to share in making the decisions that affected them.