English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

I need some cases to back this up.

2007-11-15 13:33:15 · 3 answers · asked by elshe1919 1 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

3 answers

Almost universally, title to public land cannot be acquired through adverse possession. There may be a tiny number of jurisdictions that allow adverse possession when the particular property is not held for a public use.

A municipality may acquire property through adverse possession though.

Edit: Here's your citation: Devins v. Borough of Bogota, 592 A.2d 199 (N.J.App.Div. 1991).

2007-11-15 13:43:09 · answer #1 · answered by Mr Placid 7 · 0 0

Unless there's a local law to prohibit it, yes.

Bear in mind that the period for adverse possesion, while it varies by jurisdiction, is generally several years - so the chances that a Government entity is going to let you get away with an "open and notorious" adverse possesion of some of their property for that long is remote, at best.

Richard

2007-11-15 21:44:17 · answer #2 · answered by rickinnocal 7 · 0 0

Hope this helps:

www.answers.com/topic/adverse-possession

2007-11-15 22:03:42 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers