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I ask because in my town in an golf club someone stole some golfclubs but the charges were dropped because he paid the victim 5 grand. Now why could this not work with all crimes of theft? Or could it? Its the first I have ever heard of this.

2007-11-15 10:24:24 · 1 answers · asked by shawnp089 2 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

1 answers

That's exactly what a civil compromise is. The thief agrees to pay the victim a certain sum of money, and the victim asks the State to drop the criminal charges.

It's most commonly used in shoplifting cases.

It requires the consent of both the victim AND the DA - the State has the right to press criminal charges even if the victim doesn't want them to.

Richard

2007-11-15 10:39:13 · answer #1 · answered by rickinnocal 7 · 0 0

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