My husband and I originally signed our lease in July, 2006. We were moving into a neighborhood with a highly volatile turnover in ownership, and I was concerned with that when I signed the lease. In the lease, it is stated that the house can only be shown 30 days prior to the end of the lease. When we re-upped the lease in 2007, we only signed an amendment indicating the original lease was still intact and that the rate has increased. Now, the landlord is selling, and there is a lockbox outside my door! Do I have the right to termintate my lease based on the statment in the original lease? The landlord wants to keep the security deposit, while I feel he has violated the spirit of the contract, so I feel he has not been "injured". Any advice?
2007-11-15
09:47:42
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5 answers
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asked by
Kathleen R
1
in
Business & Finance
➔ Renting & Real Estate
What I really want to do is just terminate the lease, especially given that the lease has a clause giving the landlord the right to terminate with 60 days notice. The landlord is losing money on the rental as it is, so no one will buy it to rent it. What I can see is someone buying and giving me 60 days notice. All I want it out, but I do not want to forfeit my deposit, as I feel he broke the lease first!
2007-11-15
10:09:01 ·
update #1