2007-11-15 00:51:40 · 6 answers · asked by brandyn 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Biology
Tigris is right. This question has been answered 1000s of times and when you wrote it, Yahoo surely tried to refer you to previous answers.
All mammal fetuses start out non-differentiated by sex and the nipples have already started to form before any male sex organs begin to grow.
All male mammals have nipples.
2007-11-15 01:04:06 · answer #1 · answered by Joan H 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I'll keep this simple because the full scientific and biological answer is very long and complicated.
When eggs are fertilized, they initially develop as female (XX chromosome). At a certain point in the development, a single gene acts as a signal to set the developmental pathway towards maleness.
From that point, the female reproductive organs and some skeletal differences are halted and converted to the male (chromosome XY) 'setup'.
Therefore, nipples are present in both sexes as they are part of the general makeup of the exterior skin.
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As a PS, if religions took a scientific view then they may come to believe that Adam was created SECOND and Eve was the first human.
Strange that male is created from female in the womb!
2007-11-15 01:03:10 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Why can't you use a simple search?
http://answers.yahoo.com/search/search_result;_ylt=AmlQfh9jrq0qyRuI0ZzUmKX9xQt.;_ylv=3?p=why+do+men+have+nipples
You really think this question has to be asked more than 1000 times?
2007-11-15 00:58:13 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
So that we can stay busy with questions like this...
2007-11-15 00:54:17 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
to play with.
2007-11-15 00:56:54 · answer #5 · answered by bloodshotcyclops 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
haha i've always wondered that too! i put this in my watchlist.
2007-11-15 00:54:36 · answer #6 · answered by ♪audrey♪ 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋