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2007-11-12 16:35:35 · 4 answers · asked by sara w. 2 in Arts & Humanities History

4 answers

Anti-Semitism has been rampant ever since the Roman Catholic Church officially blamed Jews for the killing of Jesus Christ. It is only recently that the Pope apologized for this awful accusation. So although in our own time we deplore anti-Semitism, in Shakespeare's day it was quite normal. Shakespeare was Catholic but whether he was personally anti-Semitic or just writing for his audience is something we cannot know.

In Shakespeare's day there WERE Jews in England. They had been expelled in 1270 by Edward I but returned in small numbers in the following centuries. Most bankers were Jewish since Christianity forbade moneylending but Judaism did not. There were also many highly skilled doctors among the Jews, because Judaism did not have the same taboos about the human body that Christianity encompassed. Because there were so many laws that restricted professions and occupations, most Jews were entrepreneurs, independent business owners who did not have to rely on others for employment.

Anti-Semitism on the part of Muslims stems from the Biblical story of Ishmael and Isaac, half-brothers, sons of Abraham. When Isaac was born to Sarah, his wife, Abraham abandoned Ishmael, his son by a concubine. Ever since, the Arabs (descendants of Ishmael) have detested the Jews (descendants of Isaac)

The Islamic world is now going through the same sort of turmoil that Christendom experienced in the 15/16/17th Centuries. The extreme Islamists are willing to kill and/or persecute non-Muslims, much as the Spanish Inquisition persecuted non-Catholics, while moderate Muslims do not subscribe to that philosophy.

The greatest blessing of the religious reformation in Europe was that it encouraged people to think and to question and led eventually to democracy and freedom of religion.

2007-11-16 16:16:24 · answer #1 · answered by marguerite L 4 · 0 0

Some people say yes. Most of the evil/bad/greedy people he created, he gave Jewish names to portray to the audience that the Jews are the bad ones. As in "The Merchant of Venice".

Shakespeare himself, though, never actually met a jew until much later in his life since there was an expulsion of jews in England at the time. When he did finally meet his first Jews, a brother and sister running away from the inquisition, he was surprised to see that they did not, contrary to popular belief, have horns and a tail.

2007-11-12 16:45:52 · answer #2 · answered by witchgurl2684 3 · 0 0

No. thoroughly examine the play. once you spot that he has portrayed Shylock as a grasping, incorrect human first, and as a Jew secondly, pleading for empathy "... prick us, and can we no longer bleed?..." and discovering his lesson on the blunders of his techniques, you will see his factor. He replaced into busting the stereotype of the day. by the way, Will Shakespeares' father replaced into imprisoned for usuary, for charging 20% on one loan, and 25% on yet another. some credit-card businesses value as much as 40 six% in the united kingdom to extreme-threat purchasers, in a self-pleasant prohesy of the distress of the poverty catch. issues do no longer replace. No-one has sufficient money.

2016-12-08 20:19:14 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Probablt. It was normal for christians in those days

2007-11-12 17:26:55 · answer #4 · answered by brainstorm 7 · 0 0

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