A. 1/3
B. 1/5
C. 3/10
D. 7/20
2007-11-12 13:18:25 · 11 answers · asked by PETEY 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
There are 6 multiples of 3 between 1 and 20,
so 6/20 is the probabiltiy, reduced equals 3/10 so
the answer is (c)
2007-11-12 13:22:03 · answer #1 · answered by peachmonk 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
C- 3/10
because the multiples of 3 from 1-20 are
3, 6, 9, 12, 15, and 18
those are 6 numbers
put it in a fraction form like this:
6/20
and then reduce and you will get
3/10 as your answer
2007-11-12 13:23:20 · answer #2 · answered by person 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
C. 3/10, because there are 6 multiples of 3 in 20, multiply 20 by 5 (to get to a hundred) then do the same with how many multiples, and there you go!
2007-11-12 13:22:27 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
C. 3/10 There are 6 multiples of three and 20 chances so it would be 6:20 or simplified 3:10
2007-11-12 13:22:20 · answer #4 · answered by Barb Outhere 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
multiples of 3 between 1 and 20 are: 3,6,9,12,15, 18
so you have 6 chances out of 20 to get a multiple of 3
6/20 reduces to 3/10
2007-11-12 13:21:10 · answer #5 · answered by Linda K 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the answer is c
multipuls are 3 6 9 12 15 18
fraction is 6/20
lowest terms 3/10
2007-11-12 13:22:15 · answer #6 · answered by misti 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
c. 3/10
2007-11-12 13:20:43 · answer #7 · answered by Josh L. 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
c: 3,6,9,12,15,18 = 6 numbers. 6/20 reduces to 3/10
2007-11-12 13:22:01 · answer #8 · answered by miggy232 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
c
3,6,9,12,15,18,
it is 6/20 which reduces to 3/10
2007-11-12 13:21:48 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
3,6,9,12,15,18
6/20 = 3/10
2007-11-12 13:21:39 · answer #10 · answered by <3 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋