Was shakespeare displaying an act of anti-semitism by writing the merchant of venice?

Question

how can i prove that he was not?

Answer 1

If he used an existing stereotype, he might be accused of ethnic or religious bias. I am not sure that he did.
He just created a character. He could not be blamed if later people turned his character into a stereotype.
We know anti-semitism predates Shakespeare. Does one character in one story show a pattern? It is always difficult to prove a negative. Personally, I would give him the benefit of doubt.