2007-11-12 11:32:03 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Social Science ➔ Gender Studies
Sure it does. It is a traditional double standard, based on religious and cultural rules of sexual behavior.
2007-11-12 16:14:50 · answer #1 · answered by ms.sophisticate 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
You know society does!
Why it is so is that blasted "double standard" that exists for all things gender specific.
A man is a "real MAN" if he has sampled a few women and gotten "experienced", while a woman is nothing but a tramp. It has been that way since time began, and I don't see it changing until the men themselves decide that they don't care how many guys their women have slept with.
We are not supposed to be so critical of our men. We can only be hopeful that he is not diseased by the time we get him!
2007-11-12 19:45:18 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 1⤋
Did you know that studies have shown that when people are asked to state how many sexual partners they have had during their lives, both genders tend to fudge the figures, but in diametrically opposite ways: men overstate their number of partners and women understate the number. That should answer your question.
2007-11-12 20:02:25 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
Majority rule, but if you notice in the past their has been more women than men, but now their are an even number if not one more marginal man per every female.
2007-11-12 20:15:04 · answer #4 · answered by luvmyselfu 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋