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We know that frequency is the energy pulses of an emitter, which is pretty much every conceivable thing since everything in its deepest level is made of atoms and atoms are made of electrons and protons and neutrons - all of which are particles
made up of energy, electricity that is; and they vibrate and do
have a frequency therefore.
So in this order of thought, it turns out that frequency is a universal property of energy? and that every particle can be defined by its frequency (and the Universe and everything we know is an elegant symphony of vibration.:-)

2007-11-12 05:29:11 · 2 answers · asked by Ateviel 3 in Science & Mathematics Physics

2 answers

YES!

In fact it was because of

(i) de Broglie's inspired realization that even for massive particles,

E = mc^2 = h nu, as well as

(ii) his deep belief in ralativistic invariance,

that quantum mechanics (Q.M.) in its "modern," 1920's form was born.

(The role of relativity in the very foundations of Q.M. is unfortunately obscured as "an inconvenient truth" by today's pedagogical approach to the subject. It is very sad that the historical development of the subject is so distorted. Dirac [with just one sentence in his famous book] and Weinberg [in the historical preface to his 3-volume work] are the only physicists I know who properly remark on this.)

Live long and prosper.

2007-11-12 06:08:08 · answer #1 · answered by Dr Spock 6 · 1 0

At least, both in the wave theory and quantum theory! I have deliberately not included string theory.

2007-11-13 04:55:13 · answer #2 · answered by Sam 7 · 1 0

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