I noticed that many times when my manager approves a Leave of Absence, shift change, or something similar, he writes on the form "Approved without precedent or prejudice".
Why does he do that?
Also, if he's been writing it repeatedly on every form for the past 2 or 3 years, does it lessen the effect of whatever it is he is trying to protect?
2007-11-10 10:57:16 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Business & Finance ➔ Careers & Employment ➔ Law & Legal
He's saying don't count on him approving the next similar request just because he approved this one. And no, doing that repeatedly doesn't change its validity. He could turn down a request, by the way, whether he wrote this or not.
2007-11-10 11:08:43 · answer #1 · answered by Judy 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
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RE:
Without precedent or prejudice ?
I noticed that many times when my manager approves a Leave of Absence, shift change, or something similar, he writes on the form "Approved without precedent or prejudice".
Why does he do that?
Also, if he's been writing it repeatedly on every form for the past 2 or 3 years,...
2015-08-10 04:55:35 · answer #2 · answered by Olia 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
He does it because at some point in his career he had to attend some seminar where some overpaid speaker shared with the audience this "special and important" information..... which as stated well above, he really doesn't need to do anyway. But now your supervisor thinks he is the bestest supervisor in the world. Always be leary of people with a little bit of legal knowledge. Nothing more dangerous.
2007-11-10 13:27:09 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
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I don't agree with you at all.
2016-04-10 04:07:19 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That means if you say "You did it for Joe" he can say "that doesn't mean I have to do it for you."
2007-11-10 11:05:11 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋