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It doesn't seem to have a chance in countries that have developed laws and regulations to keep abuses from happening.

2007-11-10 00:42:05 · 5 answers · asked by oohhbother 7 in Politics & Government Politics

n June 1959, some five months after the Cuban Revolution, the Havana government promulgated an agrarian reform law that provided for state appropriation of large private landholdings. Under this law, U.S. sugar corporations eventually lost about 1,666,000 acres of choice land and many millions of dollars in future cash-crop exports.

2007-11-10 00:49:32 · update #1

5 answers

Hmmmmmm some Historic insight could teach you that it was in fact the threat of communism that forced capitalistic societies to put some regulations on the "free market". Before Marx child labor was normal in Western Europe as were work days on 15 16 hours. The famous Marxist slogan "Let the ruling classes tremble at a communist revolution. The proletarians have nothing to lose but their chains. They have a world to win. Workingmen of all countries, unite! " was true at that time.
Now ordinary working people in the West can buy a house, sent their kids to school or gather some wealth but in the early 1900 that was unthinkable.

Now the workers have something to loose but the slogan still holds true to the third world. Also since the collapse of the Stalinist countries capitalistic reactionaries are working hard to take back the concessions they did and turn the clock on social and labor rights a few hundred years back

2007-11-10 01:20:57 · answer #1 · answered by justgoodfolk 7 · 0 0

No. I know, that's a popular perception--but it has absolutely no historical support.

First--NO industrialized country has everbecome communist. We think of the Soviet Union as one--but the Russian Empire at the time of the 1917 revolution was still a preindustrial country--as was China, North Korea, Vietnam, Cuba, etc. The Warsaw Pact nations didn't "turn to communism"--they were conquered from without. And so on.

That's Communism as a political system. as a theory of political economy, communism does have some of its roots in n intellectual critique of the problems --and excesses-- of early capitalism.. However, the notion of communism, per se, did not actually originate with Karl Marx. The earliest ideas along those lines came from artisans and guilds in the very early Industrial Revolution and were a reaction to the substitution of machines for human labor--but not to the exploitative conditions of the later Industrial Revolution and early capitalism. Marx and engels drew on this "workers rhetoric" far more than they admitted in fromulating their vision of what we today term communism.

Properly speaking, the intellectual/political challenge to unregulated capitalism is twofold. One thread ccomes from the capitalists themselves--specifically the myriad of small businesses of the mid-to-late 1800s--primarily middle class professionals who were concerned about the growing power of the new giant corporations.
The other thread is socialism--in the sense of a critique of laissez-fair capitalism dating back to the English socialism of the 1830s-forward. This form of socialism is not "anti-capitalist" (as those on the right wig continue to allege)--rather it advocates a market economy, private ownership--but does add a strong regulatory presence on the part of the state and state owerership/operation of some facets of production and distribution. Historically--both as an intellectual challenge and a real-world political system, this type of socialism is the system that arose as a result of the problems of unregulated capitalism--and is the system in use today in every industrialized country, including the United States.

2007-11-10 09:10:26 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Yes. And from fallen economies, monarchies, and democracies.

Communism arose from the fear of incompetent and controlling governments (Communism was originally intended to be "organized anarchy"). Though it backfired and created incompetent and controlling governments.

Interstingly enough, the Red Scare kept people from seeing this Irony. And it still does.

2007-11-10 08:46:21 · answer #3 · answered by Mitchell 5 · 0 0

Ummm, No. It arose in areas of totalitarianism. Think about were it flourished; in Russia after the czars, in China after the emperors, in Cuba after the corrupt government.

2007-11-10 08:52:58 · answer #4 · answered by cmdrbnd007 6 · 4 1

No.

Communism rose from the mistake of not fearing total government control.

Entre Hillary! The official 2008 communist candidate!

2007-11-10 08:46:55 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 3 2

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