My math teacher once told me that someone somewhere was able to prove that 1 + 1 = 3, now this doesn't make any sense to me but what if it someone did prove it? Is it true? Is so who did?...I would ask for the formula but I think it would just be too complicated for my little brain...
2007-11-09 04:27:42 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Let a and b be equal non-zero quantities
a = b
Multiply through by b
ab = b^2
Subtract a^2
ab - a^2 = b^2 - a^2
Factor both sides
a(b - a) = (b + a)(b - a)
Divide out (b - a)
a = b + a
Observing that a = b
b = b + b
Add both side with b
b + b = b + b + b
If b = 1,
1 + 1 = 1 + 1 + 1
1 + 1 = 3
Note: The fallacy is in line 5: the progression from line 4 to line 5 involves division by (b−a), which is zero since b equals a. The argument is invalid because because division by zero is undefined.
2007-11-09 05:13:31 · answer #1 · answered by pinhead 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No one has ever been able to prove 1+1=3. Such proofs are always incorrect and usually involve errors such as dividing by zero or equating a negative square root to a positive square root.
11 in binary arithmetic = 3, but that's not 1+1.
2007-11-09 12:34:27 · answer #2 · answered by ironduke8159 7 · 4⤊ 1⤋
It's not true unless you are rounding off 1.4+1.4=2.8=3 round off to nearest digit
2007-11-09 12:31:26 · answer #3 · answered by someone else 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
If you are using a system that only includes odd or prime numbers, yes.
2007-11-09 12:41:12 · answer #4 · answered by Kyle W 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋
No there is no way they can equal each other.
2007-11-09 12:59:07 · answer #5 · answered by Rocketman 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it is true. it comes in differential equations.
i really don't know who proved it and all... but you'll learn it it your 12th grade.
2007-11-09 12:37:05 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 3⤋