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Does this include negatives like (-9)^0
wouldnt it be -1
if its just 1 how can it be the same as (9)^0 if they are opposites.
I dont understand the 0 exponent at all!!

2007-11-08 15:57:42 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

6 answers

Yes it works with negatives as well. It works with any non zero number. The best explanation can be found at the following source...

2007-11-08 16:10:39 · answer #1 · answered by vitaeterna2004 2 · 0 0

No. Remember that an exponent does not have to be integral. So if you have sqrt(-9), this is considered an imaginary number 3i. But (-9)^[1/4] is +9. So in the limit, there is no determinate value for -9^0.

2007-11-08 16:11:51 · answer #2 · answered by cattbarf 7 · 0 0

Any non-zero number to the power of 0 is defined to be 1. 0 to the power of 0 is a special case, which is sometimes considered undefined and and sometimes taken to be 1.

Best just to memorize rather than try to understand the underlying logic.

2007-11-08 16:11:10 · answer #3 · answered by mugwump 1 · 0 0

Every number elevated to the 0 power is = to 1.

A number elevated to the negative 1 (-1) is 1/a

"a" stands for the coefficient. So

1/a = a^1


hope it helps

2007-11-08 16:03:43 · answer #4 · answered by bnv...d 3 · 0 0

Yes for ex:
8^0=1
Any number raised to the zero power is one.
Hope that helps!

2007-11-08 16:03:17 · answer #5 · answered by Michael 3 · 0 0

any and all numbers to the 0th power is 1. It is just a given.

2007-11-08 16:05:54 · answer #6 · answered by Rocketman 6 · 0 0

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