I know there is a honor code in baseball that really looks down on teams that try to bunt when they are trying to break up a opposing team's no hitter.
I'm only asking this question because most NL teams bunt when the pitcher is up.
So, without ticking everyone off what is the deepest inning to do this?
2007-11-07 02:07:33 · 11 answers · asked by Anonymous in Sports ➔ Baseball
4th
2007-11-07 02:10:32 · answer #1 · answered by J Dub 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋
If I'm a manager, if I've got a player than can bunt for a hit, then I'm all for it, no matter the score or how many hits we have/hadn't have all night.
Hitting is contagious. If a lead-off hitter can get a hit by bunting in the 9th inning of a 15-0 game in which my team is being no hit, then good. Sure, we would probably still lose the game, but I don't want the "we were just no hit" mentality carrying over to the next game. When guys aren't hitting they press and that just makes matters worse. I mean think about it, when was the last time you saw a team get no-hit then go on to put up 10+ runs in the next game, or reel off an 5+ game winning streak...probably never, because the team as a whole slumps in the batters box.
2007-11-07 03:51:37 · answer #2 · answered by Kyle H 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
I don't think you can put an inning deadline on it, because it really depends on the score.
If my leadoff guy bunts to get on in the ninth inning of a 1-0 or 2-0 game, I'm all for it. At that point, we need baserunners any way we can get them, and I don't care if it bothers the pitcher. In fact, getting him angry about it might make him lose concentration and give the next hitter an advantage.
If it's 5-0 or 6-0 in the sixth or seventh, then I think bunting for no reason other than to break up the no-hitter is a little chintzy. The example always used is Ben Davis bunting off Schilling in the 8th inning of a game in which Curt had a no-hitter, but that again was a 2-0 game and brought the tying run to the plate. I don't believe in "unwritten rules," and I think fans often make too big a deal when such rules are violated.
2007-11-07 02:14:12 · answer #3 · answered by Craig S 7 · 6⤊ 0⤋
How about two outs in the last inning. There is much more of a problem if you are ahead in the game and bunt in the late innings. If you are behind by a run or two in the later innings and you need base runners there is nothing wrong with a bunt. Forget the no hitter on the other side you are trying to win a game.
2007-11-07 02:32:11 · answer #4 · answered by Frizzer 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Actually until the last batter is out. If you are being held hitless and are behind 19-0 and you bunt, it's bushleague to do it just to break up the no-hitter but no real honor code. You'd like a team to hit away but you got the bat in your hand, it's up to you.
2007-11-07 02:55:59 · answer #5 · answered by iwasnotanazipolka 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
After the 5th inning I would think, but to me if it is a one run game there is no code, you getting on base means that the tying run is on first, winning run at the plate.
2007-11-07 02:14:18 · answer #6 · answered by bdough15 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
There is no code. They are trying to win not support the other team's no hitter.
2007-11-07 02:31:01 · answer #7 · answered by Crowdpleaser 6 · 2⤊ 1⤋
the seventh inning. :) lol
if the game is not called a draw, it would either be the top or the bottom of an inning.
2007-11-07 04:15:50 · answer #8 · answered by gods creation 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋
depends on the score
2007-11-07 02:23:08 · answer #9 · answered by BRAVESFAN 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It depends. What time is it?
2007-11-07 15:56:22 · answer #10 · answered by Toodeemo 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋