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2007-11-06 17:24:00 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities History

4 answers

If you're looking for DNA-type descendants, then I'd look elsewhere for a good answer. But to give you a quick-and-dirty answer about language and ethnic identity, then you might have to say yes, since both modern German and modern Norwegian are linguistic descendents of Old High Norse. The closest you can get today to Old High Norse might be modern Icelandic. And if you happen to be near Cavalier, North Dakota, you can stop by the Icelandic Heritage Center where they have an interesting bible brought over by Icelandic settlers.

I think linguistic historians accept that most modern Germanic languages have Old High Norse as a historical base. Modern English (American, Canadian, British and Australian/New Zealand), German, Dutch, Swedish and Norwegian all derive from Old High Norse. Remember Beowulf?

Another way to answer your question is to let you know that there was no country called Germany until 1871. Norway became a country in 1905.

And lastly, there is Hitler's nonsense about superior Aryan race; he thought Scandanavians were ideal. There was some cockamamey links between Scandanavians (including Swedes and Norwegians) with his "ideal" Germans. Jesse Owens embarassed Hitler by winning.

Hope some of this helps.

2007-11-06 18:16:33 · answer #1 · answered by going_for_baroque 7 · 1 0

No there is no direct descent, more like cousins several times removed.

I have to disagree slightly with the previous answerer. I am talking about the languages, not ethnic groups. Old norse and old english are both are earlier versions of the germanic language group that modern german, swedish, icelandic, english etc. belong to. This means that at some point long ago the language was the same. Language is a good sign of being culturally related to another group, but not genetically. As you can change your language to better fit in with the locals or the invaders.

As for who the germans are descended from, it is commonly believed that the group of people that inhabitet the scandinavian peninsula and became the "norsemen" centuries later did come from central europe as did the Angles and Saxons that took over Britain later in the 5th century. Go back far enough in time and you can say that the ancestors of those people living in middle europe and southern europe are the same. Go back more you can include asia and further back africa. At the end of the day we are all related.

2007-11-07 05:05:32 · answer #2 · answered by Otavainen 3 · 1 0

Not descendants. Both probably came from the same line though. French Normans from Normandy were the descendants of norsemen who occupied by England but were expelled by king Alfred and settled in that coastal area of Gaul (france) hence the name "Normandy". They returned to England and re conquered the country led by William the Bastard , who after defeating the british King Harold at the Battle of Hastings in 1066, renamed himself William the Conqueror.

2007-11-07 11:35:21 · answer #3 · answered by exsft 7 · 0 0

NEIN - - - NO - - - the Germanic tribes existed before the Norsemen and many Norsemen were likely exiled Germans.... Mirgration patterns were from South to North then as now the North 'became' warmer more hospitable for living etc.....

Peace................ /// ---------- O . v . O ------------ \\\ ...........c

2007-11-07 01:41:44 · answer #4 · answered by JVHawai'i 7 · 0 0

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