How is George Berkeley's position, "esse est percipi" (to be is to be perceived), related to the question posed by Hylas to Philonous about the "bent oar in the water"?
I know it has something to do with mistaken perception: it is right to think the ore is bent when it is in the water; the mistake occurs in thinking it will be bent when it is removed from the water.
My question: how does this relate to the greater picture of Berkeley's views? What is the importance of the "bent oar" scenario. Is this related to Locke's veil of perception?
2007-11-06
15:55:26
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2 answers
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Anonymous
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Arts & Humanities
➔ Philosophy