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-How did the magna carta change the balance of power in government in england ?
-Discuss the changing relationship between roman governments and christians christianity from about ad 100 to ad 400 ?

Please help me answer them I'm just want to know peoples respond, since i heard that theres a lot of possible answer to these questions. thanks a lot <3

2007-11-06 14:19:46 · 1 answers · asked by huniloveyou 4 in Politics & Government Government

1 answers

Well, it didn't. It was a group of nobles who came up with the idea. It did set limits on the absolute power of the King, but it surely did not upset the balance of power. The English (and later British) monarchs enjoyed almost absolute power through the 18th century. Henry VII and Elizabeth I are great examples. Yes, they answered to Parlaiment at times, but more often Parlaiment answered to them.

It wasn't until the 19th century that the monarchy began to take the shape it resembles today, but even until the early 20th century, the monarch had something more than ceremonial power.

The office of the Prime Minister began to gain significant power in the 19th century, but Churchill's term and actions during WWII really sealed the fate of monarchical power in the UK.

Elizabeth II's reign will go down in history as the first truely un-necessary reign in Britian's history. While Royal Perogatives still exist in the UK, it is doubtful if any monarch succeding her will employ them.

What this has to do with your other question is beyond me.

2007-11-06 16:09:32 · answer #1 · answered by Willie D 7 · 0 0

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