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Let a^j = b^k, for j, k integers.

Then there exists an integer m which divides o(a) -- and hence is relatively prime to o(b) -- such that 1=a^(jm) = b^(km).

But since m is relatively prime to o(b), and we just showed that the o(b) divides km, it follows that the o(b) divides k.

Thus, b^k = 1

QED.

2007-11-06 22:42:29 · answer #2 · answered by Curt Monash 7 · 0 0

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