I know that in the US each party is responsible for payment of their own legal fees whether they win or lose the case. I am looking for exceptions to this rule. I know that one exception is when specified by the contract itself. Are there any others?
2007-11-05
14:40:42
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5 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics
Yes, I am aware that the judge may order it, but I was looking for under what circumstances this happens. The judge can only order it if the law provides for it.
2007-11-05
14:49:45 ·
update #1