It gives Congress the power to lay taxes WITHOUT apportionment or regard to census/enumeration. So what does that mean? I kind of get it, but I want to be able to write it in 'easier' terms.
And I've been reading things from Wikipedia and other Y!A about how it conflicts with the Constitution?
2007-11-05 13:21:45 · 3 answers · asked by Me 7 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
The 16th amendment gives congress the right to tax incomes regardless of where you live (apportionment ) or how many are living in America (census/enumeration ) . Hope that explains it for you.
2007-11-05 14:25:52 · answer #1 · answered by old-bald-one 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is the "Leveler" amendment, intended to create a tax on everyone, regardless of their status in society. The intention (from the Progressive's point of view) was to tax the wealthy more than the poor.
Our Income Tax doesn't seem to do that very well.
One way to remember this one is that if it's the 16th, and you haven't filed yet, you're probably late.
2007-11-05 13:54:42 · answer #2 · answered by william_byrnes2000 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think it is written that way so that it includes all people from all states even if those states did not agree to go along with it.
2007-11-05 13:35:33 · answer #3 · answered by Nort 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋