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[n(n - 3)!] / n!

2007-11-05 07:08:31 · 2 answers · asked by Katie 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

2 answers

Well, n! = n(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)!
So we get
n(n-3)!/n(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)!
= 1/(n-1)(n-2).

2007-11-05 07:14:15 · answer #1 · answered by steiner1745 7 · 0 0

[n(n-3)!]/[n(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)!]

cancel the n and the (n-3)! to get

1 / [(n-1)(n-2)]

2007-11-05 07:12:35 · answer #2 · answered by chcandles 4 · 0 0

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