The couple have been divorced 5 years, now she wants part of his workmans comp settlement. It is not a severance package, just comp for his injured back
2007-11-04 22:11:07 · 3 answers · asked by minceynana 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
This depends on several factors:
1. When he was injured
2. Whether she was his sole support while he was off work
I don't know what the relevant case law is, but if he was injured during a time when she was his sole support, she may have a case.
2007-11-04 22:23:37 · answer #1 · answered by browneyedgirl623 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, she is not entitled. Settlements are based on estimated future lost wages.
2007-11-04 22:56:32 · answer #2 · answered by regerugged 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That explains why theyre divorced.Greedy *****!
But if it happend while they were married and she took care of him it's quite possible that a court would grant her some sort of compensation.
2007-11-04 22:25:29 · answer #3 · answered by Just me again ☺ 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋