Originally i thought i had signed a 12 month lease, that was the understanding of both myself and my husband. We received a copy of the lease now after 4 months and the date had been changed. It says September 1st to September 30 2007. The 7 is turned into an 8, we are having problems with our landlords and want to end the lesae, it doesn't specify anywhere on the lease whether it is a year or month to month, can this be considered a month to month, since we originally signed through those dates. giving a 30 day notice is all that needs to be done, and we have done that, they argued that it was 12 months, but the lease says different. It is clear that they changed the 7 to an 8. also we would not have signed if we new it only said sept 30, 2007 because we were looking for a 12 month lease. And to make it clear we moved in in sept of this year 2007. Would this stand if we were to go to court? Please Help, Thank you.
2007-11-04 14:37:42 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Business & Finance ➔ Renting & Real Estate
I really couldn't understand your question clearly . Just move I doubt they will come after you, Most judges tend to lean toward the tents unless you haven't payed rent. Its kind of hard for the judges to understand why the land lord would mess with the goose that lays the golden eggs.
2007-11-04 15:04:12 · answer #1 · answered by Robertus911 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You can give 30 days notice, but are still liable for the rest of the lease but ONLY if he doesnt rent it. If he lets it sit empty until sept 08, you can be sued. If he does rent it, you are only liable for the days that it sits empty on a day by day basis. For instance, if your rent is 1000 per month you have to pay $33.33 for every day its empty.
Dont try to cheat when you originally thought you signed 12 months and want to get out on a "clerical" error by the landlord. This will bite you in the butt, because courts side with landlords 90% of the time. You should tell us what problems you are having with him so we can help you better. He might be doing something illegal or something that can justify ending the lease in a legal way.
2007-11-04 22:51:20 · answer #2 · answered by Peilthetraveler 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Peilthetraveler is correct. It appears that you are attempting to invalidate a lease you intended to sign for twelve months on the basis of a clerical error by the landlord. Unless you have a copy of the lease showing otherwise, a court will side with the landlord under the assumption that you did NOT sign a one month residential lease.
If you are having OTHER valid issues with your landlord, you might attempt to find ways to terminate the lease on THOSE grounds, but that clerical error isn't going to make it for you.
2007-11-05 07:23:14 · answer #3 · answered by acermill 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If it's plain that the lease was tampered with it should stand up in court. You should have a copy of the original that you signed for comparison to the one that has been tampered with.
2007-11-04 22:47:33 · answer #4 · answered by Dirty Dave 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋