2007-11-04 14:00:45 · 6 answers · asked by karr_vas 1 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
If the land was acquired DURING the marriage then he has rights. If he can prove that HE took most care of the property he could stake a claim. It mostly depends on how long you were married. Land is VERY valuable in Michigan...hire an attorney honey...
2007-11-04 14:07:35 · answer #1 · answered by Mee-OW =^..^= 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No legal advice being given!
I am not an attorney.
Just looking, property is awarded to the original owner, unless there's cause for the divorce, then it becomes community property.
If you owned the property before marriage, cheated on your husband during marriage, and he can prove it, he can take half.
If the divorce is non-fault and you owned the property before marriage, it's all yours.
2007-11-04 14:24:56 · answer #2 · answered by muppetkiller_2000 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, even with the paper that people sign before they get married. They can be broke. I forget what it's called.
2007-11-04 14:23:52 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
NO-MICHIGAN LAW 552.401 STATES THAT THE PARTY HAD TO ASSIST IN DEVELOPMENT OF PROPERTY TO DECLARE A PORTION THERE OF.
2007-11-04 14:26:57 · answer #4 · answered by ahsoasho2u2 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
IT IS ALL 50/50.
2007-11-04 14:05:38 · answer #5 · answered by firewall 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is something you should ask your lawyer. You might get good information here, or you might not. How will you ever know?
2007-11-04 14:05:36 · answer #6 · answered by Ralfcoder 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋